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Exam Code: CRCM
Exam Name: IFPUG (CERTIFIED REGULATORY COMPLIANCE MANAGER (CRCM))
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Total Q&A: 463 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 In a compliance program, tactical compliance procedures should be integrated into
business line procedures, such as how to deliver an Adverse Action Notice when an
application is declined. In this case:
A. Regulations should be applied consistently to procedures throughout the bank
B. Revisions to procedures should be based on compliance expertise and not mere editing
C. Providing solutions to mitigate any identified risk
D. Assisting business units in developing or revising policies and procedures to reflect
current regulatory requirements
Answer: A, B

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NO.2 A compliance professional’s responsibilities include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Understanding the business units operating environment and risk tolerance
B. Performing risk assessments with the assistance of business units to determine current
risk levels and risks associated with the bank’s products, lines of business, customers, and
locations, among other factors
C. Working with business units to ensure prompt corrective action for any detected errors
D. Assisting business lines with compliance training for employees, as needed
Answer: D

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NO.3 To be effective, compliance risk management professionals must design a framework to
ensure that bank management understands the risks and the steps that must be taken to
mitigate them. The many roles compliance professionals fill incorporate risk management
aspects including:
A. Coordinating regulatory exams to explain risks to examiners
B. Overseeing compliance training targeting higher risk areas
C. Tracking regulatory proposals and final rules to understand new risks
D. All of these
Answer: D

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NO.4 They also embrace the concept of risk-based compliance management. They expect
compliance management to be tailored to the bank, be it large or small, offering standard
or specialty financial services, simple or complex products lines, and adjusted as
appropriate for the customer base as that issued for the Bank Secrecy Act, also
establishes their expectations that a bank’s program be risk based. Who are they?
A. Outsourcing firms
B. Foreign financial service providers
C. Bank regulatory agencies
D. Risk management organizations
Answer: C

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NO.5 should include basic elements designed to understand and mitigate risk.
It usually includes:
Written program
Compliance-related policies and procedures
A. Tactical Compliance procedure
B. Rank solution
C. Compliance program
D. None of these
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Riverbed (Riverbed Certified Solutions Associate - Network Performance Management)
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Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 In a Cascade deployment with Sensor and Profiler, what information does the Application Performance
Policy report show? (Select 4)
A. Number of connections per second
B. Average Response time
C. TCP resets
D. CPU and memory utilization of server
E. TCP retransmission
F. Number of jumbo frames
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.2 How do you configure a new user for the Cascade Shark appliance?
A. From the User Management section of the Web Interface
B. From the Basic Settings page of the Web Interface
C. From the Users menu of Cascade Pilot
D. From the Advanced Settings page of the Web Interface
Answer: A

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NO.3 Configuring the Cascade appliance to use RADIUS for authentication/authorization involves which of
the following tasks (in no particular order): (Select 4)
A. User Name
B. Specify the IP address of the RADIUS server
C. Port number
D. Password
E. Authentication protocol
F. Shared secret of each RADIUS server
Answer: B,C,E,F

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NO.4 To drill down and analyze a file within Cascade Pilot, you should. (Select 2)
A. Select a graphic object in a View chart, and drag a View on the object.
B. Select a graphic object in a View chart, and drag a View on the trace file.
C. Select the View, right-click, and apply it with the filter associated with a graphic object.
D. Right-click in the View chart, and select "Drill-down" to select the View.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 What are the ways Cascade Profiler can graphically depict response times in the GUI?
A. In Overall Traffic Graphs
B. In Connection Graphs
C. In Dashboard Line Graphs
D. In Overall Traffic Graphs and in Connection Graphs
Answer: D

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NO.6 Within Cascade Pilot, how are views used to analyze a trace file? (Select 2)
A. Drag the trace file on the View to apply the View.
B. Right-click the View item and select "Apply with Filter".
C. Drag a View on the trace file to apply the selected View.
D. Select the View and the trace file, and double-click the trace file.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 On Cascade Profiler, which of the following are configurable from the Configuration> User Interface
Preferences interface? (Select 4)
A. Default Host Group Type to use on the User Interface and Reports
B. Whether hosts will be displayed by IP address or DNS/DHCP hostname
C. User ¯s Timezone to use for the User Interface and Reports
D. Option to control whether bandwidth is reported in Bits or Bytes
E. Host group definitions for mapping IP subnets into Custom host groups
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.8 In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what do the QoS values mean?
A. They are based upon the 6-bit Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP).
B. They are based upon Host Group definitions, defined within the Cascade GUI.
C. They are based upon Application definitions, defined within the Cascade GUI.
D. They are based upon Port definitions, defined within the Cascade GUI.
Answer: A

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NO.9 If one has a Service Health dashboard widget included on a dashboard, will all newly created Services
automatically appear on that dashboard widget?
A. Yes, always.
B. It depends on whether all of the segments initialize their baseline.
C. It depends on what criteria was used when defining the dashboard widget.
D. It depends on which user defined and committed the Service.
E. It depends on how many Services have already been configured.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What are the types of content blocks available to view Events
on the Cascade Profiler dashboard?
(Select 2)
A. Security Events
B. Performance and Availability Events
C. Current Events
D. Unacknowledged Events
E. Public Events
F. Private Events
G. Per User Events
H. Per IP Address Events
Answer: C,D

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NO.11 Which of the following are differences between the Cascade Sensor and the Cascade Shark appliances?
(Select 2)
A. Cascade Shark appliance can monitor 10GE interface traffic but Cascade Sensor cannot.
B. Cascade Sensor can provide flow data to Cascade Profiler but Cascade Shark appliance cannot.
C. Cascade Shark appliance has much higher write-to-disk rates than the Cascade Sensor and is the
appropriate appliance when packet capture is the primary requirement.
D. Cascade Sensor can recognize the application type by its DPI signature database but Cascade Shark
appliance cannot.
Answer: C,D

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NO.12 Which of the following supports the largest number of Cascade analytics?
A. Express
B. Standard Profiler
C. Enterprise Profiler
D. B and C
E. A, B, and C
Answer: C

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NO.13 Outgoing Mail Server (SMTP) Settings enable Cascade Profiler to: (Select 2)
A. receive mail from others.
B. send reports.
C. send disk failure notifications.
D. send alerts.
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 What is the minimum number of physical boxes involved in a Cascade Enterprise Profiler?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: C

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NO.15 How does the Cascade Profiler determine the optimization levels achieved for WAN Optimization
reports?
A. Compare the amount of traffic crossing a LAN interface to the corresponding traffic crossing an
optimized WAN interface.
B. Compare updates received via SNMP from Steelhead optimization devices with router devices.
C. The Cascade Profiler cannot determine optimization levels.
D. Through manual entry of levels achieved.
E. Compare updates received via flows from Steelhead optimization devices with router devices.
Answer: A

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NO.16 What are the default credentials to log into the Cascade Shark appliance Web Interface?
A. admin/admin
B. root/sharkappliance
C. root/root
D. root/riverbed
E. admin/cacetech
Answer: A

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NO.17 In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what format can be used for a Dashboard Content Block? (Select 3)
A. Connection Graph
B. Detailed Flow List
C. Table
D. Pie Chart
E. Line Graph
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.18 Some common protocols, which may be observed on a network with visibility tools, include:
A. HTTP over TCP/80 and HTTPS over TCP/445
B. HTTP over TCP/80 and HTTPS over TCP/443
C. HTTP over TCP/443 and HTTPS over TCP/80
D. HTTP over TCP/445 and HTTPS over TCP/80
E. HTTP over TCP/88 and HTTP over TCP/444
Answer: B

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NO.19 To organize hosts into logical arrangements what is important to configure on Cascade Profiler.?
A. Host Baseline Profiles
B. Custom Port Definitions
C. Host Groupings
D. Mitigation Configuration
Answer: C

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NO.20 What are some reports Cascade Profiler provides to benefit WAN management?
A. WAN Optimization Benefits reports, Breakdown of business versus non-business application reports,
QOS reports by interface and/or application.
B. WAN Optimization of all TCP protocols with more specific optimization of over 50 TCP Applications.
C. WAN reporting of TCP Protocols.
D. QOS shaping, User-based policies that will block not compliant traffic, WAN optimization reporting.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: SD0-101
Exam Name: SDI (Service Desk Analyst Qualification)
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Total Q&A: 165 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which option best describes one of the roles of an SDA?
A. Managing users expectations
B. Delivering problem support
C. Negotiating SLAs with customers
D. Achieving reporting targets
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the best reason for an SDA to follow documented processes and procedures?
A. It ensures that all customers perform consistently
B. It ensures that the SDA performs consistently
C. It ensures that customers consistently provide positive feedback
D. It ensures that the manager is protected from irate users
Answer: B

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NO.3 Your manager has told you that the Service Desk team must provide excellent customer service at all
times. As an SDA, what is the most important thing you must do to ensure that this happens?
A. Always show plenty of sympathy to the users
B. Always follow the procedures you understand best
C. Always reprimand colleagues who fail to deliver service excellence
D. Always listen to what users tell you
Answer: D

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NO.4 Some things can get in the way of good communication which of these options has the biggest impact
on a Service Desk?
A. Noise and general chatter
B. Inappropriate SLAs in place
C. An unreliable IT infrastructure
D. The users status in the organisation
Answer: A

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NO.5 A list of desirable attributes included in a job description for a Service Desk Analyst should include ...
A. Seeing a users Incident or Service Request through to resolution, conveying a willingness to help and
being nice to senior management
B. Conveying a willingness to help, focussing on business needs and providing users with the best
possible service
C. Taking ownership of users Problems, maintaining a positive attitude and focussing your attention on
the user
D. Focussing on business needs, providing users with best possible service with an ability to answer a
high volume of calls
Answer: B

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NO.6 Your manager has emphasised the importance of establishing effective working relationships with
other teams in the organisation. Of these options, which is the most important activity you should
undertake to enable this to happen?
A. Learn about and recognise the roles and responsibilities of other teams
B. Ensure that your team is seen by users as their champion
C. Treat everyone according to their importance in the organisation
D. Make certain that the IT director is aware of inter-team communication issues
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the options best describes a key responsibility of a Service Desk Manager?
A. To deliver ad-hoc levels of service quality from the Service Desk
B. To promote the Service Desk to the organisation and users
C. To manage Incidents and Major Incidents
D. To develop and manage the Problem Management team
Answer: B

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NO.8 Your organisation has recently implemented SLAs and OLAs. A new starter on your team has confided
in you that they dont really understand what an OLA is; how would you explain it to him/her?
A. It is a legally enforceable contract between a user and a supplier to ensure user satisfaction with
services offered
B. It is an ad-hoc arrangement between internal support teams that is helpful to the support of a contract
C. It is an agreement between internal support teams that defines the support necessary to meet delivery
of IT Services
D. It is a methodology used to measure compliance to standards of behaviour
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which option is the best example of a closed question?
A. What are the symptoms of your Incident?
B. Tell me what you were doing immediately prior to the Incident?
C. What version of the software do you have?
D. How can I be of help?
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which these options would NOT be a responsibility of the Service Desk?
A. Representing the IT organisation
B. Delivering first time fixes
C. Operating as a communications channel
D. Providing a reliable IT infrastructure
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of these options best describes personal accountability?
A. Delivering excellent levels of service quality
B. Admitting to errors
C. Taking ownership of your teams Incidents and Service Requests
D. Behaving and dressing in a distinctive manner
Answer: B

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NO.12 How would you characterise a failing team?
A. It is managed without SLAs
B. Its members are very touchy feely
C. Its members demonstrate low morale
D. It is solely focussed on business objectives
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which attribute would you expect from good team members?
A. They are nice to everyone
B. They have good timekeeping skills
C. They listen to other peoples point of view
D. They cover up their mistakes
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of these options is a characteristic of a successfully performing team?
A. Attendance at team social events is mandatory.
B. The team leader closely manages everyone equally
C. A team member will do anything to be the best
D. Everyone actively listens to each other
Answer: D

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NO.15 A primary responsibility of the Service Desk is to
A. Manage Major Incidents
B. Act as the resolver for all users Incidents and Service Requests
C. Resolve Problems
D. Acknowledge and record all Incidents and Service Requests
Answer: D

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NO.16 What is the best way for an SDA to enhance the image of the Service Desk?
A. Dress to reflect your professionalism
B. Ensure users are aware that the Service Desk is the key component in IT
C. Provide accurate information to users without denigrating other teams
D. Advise users of resolutions via the weekly Service Desk email
Answer: C

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NO.17 Consider your responsibilities as an SDA: which of these options best describes one of your principal
responsibilities?
A. To provide easily understood and accurate answers to users questions
B. To provide technically detailed answers to users questions
C. To provide users with information about the workings of the Service Desk
D. To provide recommendations about technical courses to users
Answer: A

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NO.18 If you are asked to name a Service Desk best practice, which option would be relevant?
A. SAP
B. KCS
C. Problem Management
D. itSMF
Answer: B

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NO.19 A new trainee is being inducted into the Service Desk and s/he questions why there are procedures
and the need for documentation. What should you tell him/her to justify the need for consistent
procedures and processes?
A. Clear procedures mean that everything is done uniformly to eliminate errors
B. Clear procedures mean that customers receive consistent service
C. SLAs and procedures ensure that staff will not be criticised if targets are not met
D. Consistent procedures mean that SLAs and OLAs will always be met
Answer: B

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NO.20 What is the best type of questioning to use to disengage a caller whilst ensuring a professional
approach to call management?
A. Reflective questions
B. Rapid questions
C. Open questions
D. Closed questions
Answer: D

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NO.21 Where would you find clear definitions of boundaries and procedures for dealing with inappropriate
behaviour?
A. Company policy documents
B. Incident Management documents
C. Service Desk procedure documents
D. Service Level Agreement documents
Answer: A

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NO.22 We should maintain a positive service attitude at all times; which option is the best reason for doing
so?
A. A good service attitude will improve SLA performance
B. Users will see the Service Desk as cheerful happy people
C. It will help to build confidence in the service
D. A bad attitude means that SLAs wont be met
Answer: C

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NO.23 Which option is a benefit of using Knowledge Management in a Service Desk?
A. This ensures that all staff will log Incidents uniformly
B. It removes the need for training of Service Desk staff
C. It reduces the Incident talk time for users
D. It reduces the overall cost of support
Answer: D

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NO.24 What should an SDA reasonably expect of users when they contact the service desk for assistance?
A. To provide valuable information regarding their opinion of the Service Desk
B. To provide valuable information regarding their view of the SLA
C. To provide an opportunity to receive feedback regarding their technical ability
D. To provide the relevant information needed to resolve their incident
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which of these options best describes a benefit of good teamwork?
A. There is always someone else to pick up any work you fail to do
B. There is commitment to team decisions
C. There is a specialist for each product or service
D. There is less need for person-to-person communication
Answer: B

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NO.26 Why is it important to keep to your commitments to your team members?
A. It will help to ensure that bonuses are paid
B. My colleagues will admire my achievements
C. It improves the morale of the Service Desk
D. Management will not criticise my behaviour
Answer: C

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NO.27 In order to measure its efficiency, a Service Desk routinely measures First Contact Resolution
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A. To measure the effectiveness of the escalation procedure
B. To indicate levels of customer satisfaction
C. To measure how long users wait to speak to an SDA
D. To evaluate and adjust staffing levels
Answer: B

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NO.28 Which of these options is NOT part of the correct procedure for putting a user on hold?
A. Asking the user for permission to remotely access their system
B. Communicating a valid reason for putting the user on hold
C. Giving the user a reasonable time frame
D. Regularly updating the user about the wait-time
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which option is NOT a characteristic of a successful team?
A. Trust is encouraged amongst team members
B. Support from senior management is received
C. League tables are published
D. Participation in the decision-making process is encouraged
Answer: C

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NO.30 Your organisation documents company policies to which it expects all employees to adhere. What is
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A. Company policies support consistent behaviour
B. Company policies emphasise deviations from acceptable behaviour
C. Company policies meet their managers criteria for success
D. Company policies support creative approaches for SDA activities
Answer: A

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NO.1 A new BlackBerry device user wants to create a BlackBerry Internet Service account but is unable to
locate the Email Settings application on the BlackBerry device. Why is the user unable to locate this
application? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry device has not been registered on the wireless network yet
B. The BlackBerry device has Email Reconciliation disabled in the Message options
C. The BlackBerry device has been provisioned for BlackBerry Enterprise Server Plus service
D. The user has selected the incorrect wireless service provider from the login screen
E. The user included invalid characters during the password selection
Answer: A

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NO.2 A BlackBerry device user is unable to successfully add a contact to the BlackBerry Messenger list.
The contact is also a BlackBerry device user. The contact is stuck in the Pending state. Which of the
following would cause this problem to occur? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry device is not provisioned for BlackBerry Instant Messaging
B. The contact has not accepted the invitation on the BlackBerry device
C. The user is attempting to add the contact by email address, which is unsupported
D. Peer-to-Peer encryption has been set on the BlackBerry device, blocking the contact from being added
E. The user does not have the BlackBerry Internet Browsing Service service book
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following might prevent BlackBerry device users from installing Google Maps on their
BlackBerry devices.? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry device memory is full
B. It is an unsupported application
C. The BlackBerry device is not provisioned for BlackBerry Enterprise Plus services
D. The users do not have BlackBerry Internet Service accounts
E. A BlackBerry Internet Service policy is blocking the application
Answer: A

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NO.4 A BlackBerry device user's BlackBerry device stops receiving email messages from an integrated
Yahoo! email account. What are three possible causes for this issue? (Choose three.)
A. There are email messages with attachments over 8MB in the user's Inbox
B. The user changed the password for the Yahoo! email account
C. The user entered the incorrect password on the BlackBerry device, ten times
D. Yahoo!'s anti-spam application is blocking incoming email messages from going to the user's Inbox
E. The service book for the email account has been deleted from the BlackBerry device
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 Email messages deleted from an integrated Yahoo! email account are not being removed from the
BlackBerry device after being deleted from the Yahoo! web site. What are two possible causes for this
issue? (Choose two.)
A. The check box for "Synchronize deleted items between this mailbox and my device" is not checked
B. The Wireless Reconcile option on the BlackBerry device is turned off
C. The Pop Forwarding option on the integrated Yahoo! email account is set to POP access only
D. The email application is configured to "Leave a copy of messages on the server"
E. The On Conflicts option on the BlackBerry device is set to Handheld Wins
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 A BlackBerry device user has three integrated email accounts with the BlackBerry Internet Service:
Yahoo!, Gmail, and an integrated POP email account. Email messages arrive on the BlackBerry device
almost immediately after being received by the Yahoo! and Gmail email accounts. With the integrated
POP email account, it can take up to 15 minutes from the time the email message arrives in the mailbox
until it arrives on the BlackBerry device. What might cause this issue? (Choose one.)
A. Integrated POP email accounts are polled at 15 minute intervals by the BlackBerry Internet Service
B. The user's BlackBerry device is provisioned for BlackBerry Enterprise Plus Service
C. The Instant Polls feature is disabled for this specific POP email account on the BlackBerry Internet
Service account
D. The BlackBerry device does not have sufficient wireless coverage
E. The user's email messages are being sorted to a .pst folder by the desktop email application
Answer: D

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NO.7 A BlackBerry device user is not able to log in to an online banking site using the BlackBerry Internet
Browsing Service, although other web sites can be successfully accessed. Which of the following might
cause this issue to occur? (Choose one.)
A. The browser content cache is full
B. The web site's security is set too high
C. The BlackBerry device security options are set too high
D. The BlackBerry device Push Content feature is not enabled
E. The BlackBerry device is roaming on a different wireless service provider's mobile network
Answer: B

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NO.8 BlackBerry Desktop Manager shows the BlackBerry device as Connected and then quickly shows it as
Disconnected when connecting using Bluetooth. Which of the following would cause this issue to occur?
(Choose one.)
A. An anti-virus program is blocking the Bluetooth connection to BlackBerry Desktop Manager
B. The Bluetooth software has not been installed on the BlackBerry device
C. Improper Bluetooth drivers are installed on the desktop computer
D. BlackBerry Desktop Manager has not been installed correctly
E. The Bluetooth hardware that is installed on the computer is unsupported
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which final step must be performed by BlackBerry device users after migrating from an Automatic
Login account to a Classic Mode account before they can receive new email messages? (Choose one.)
A. Create a new password for the BlackBerry Internet Service account
B. Send service books to the BlackBerry device
C. Perform a hard reset and re-register the BlackBerry device on the wireless network
D. Accept the End User Licensing Agreement after logging into the BlackBerry Internet Service web site
E. Re-validate any BlackBerry device hosted email addresses and third-party email integrations
Answer: E

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NO.10 When are you required to use the advanced integration feature of the BlackBerry Internet Service?
(Choose one.)
A. When integrating a third-party email account that requires a proxy server
B. When integrating a BlackBerry Internet Service account that has a password specified
C. When integrating a Microsoft Outlook Web Access email account that has an Internet Security and
Acceleration Server
D. When integrating a third-party email account that requires a user name not found in the email address
E. When integrating a Yahoo! email account in order to receive instant email message notifications
Answer: D

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NO.11 Email messages deleted from a BlackBerry device are not being removed from the BlackBerry device
user's email application for an integrated IMAP email account. Which of the following might cause this to
happen? (Choose one.)
A. The user's email application was configured to access the messaging server using POP settings
B. Wireless message reconciliation is not supported for integrated IMAP email accounts
C. The user has disabled wireless email reconciliation in the BlackBerry Internet Service account
D. The user has not enabled email reconciliation in BlackBerry Desktop Manager
E. The BlackBerry device is provisioned for BlackBerry Enterprise Server service on the wireless data
network
Answer: A

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NO.12 What are two limitations of the BlackBerry Desktop Redirector? (Choose two.)
A. 15 minute message polling cycle
B. Requires constant Internet connectivity
C. Provides no attachment support
D. Requires a USB connection
E. Has unencrypted message transmission
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 What are two purposes of the Reply To field within an integrated email account? (Choose two.)
A. The email address contained in the Reply To field will be used as the reply address for anyone that
receives email messages from this email integration.
B. The email address contained in the Reply To field will be used as the reply address for anyone that
receives forwarded email messages from this email integration.
C. The email address contained in the Reply To field will automatically be added to the CC field of any
replies sent from this email integration.
D. The email address contained in the Reply To field will replace the Sent address on any email
messages received from this email integration.
E. The email address contained in the Reply To field will be added as a Favorite to the Reply field when
replying to email messages sent to this email integration.
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 What information is sent to a BlackBerry device when a BlackBerry device user clicks Send Service
Books from the BlackBerry Internet Service account? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Internet Service service books
B. Email integration service books
C. BlackBerry Internet Service and email integration service books
D. Email integration service books and auto signature service books
E. Provisioning service books
Answer: B

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NO.15 A BlackBerry device user has a media card in the BlackBerry device, but the BlackBerry device memory
is full. Which three of the following actions should the user take to resolve this issue? (Choose three.)
A. Perform an Application Load on the BlackBerry device to install additional memory
B. Make sure the BlackBerry device is set to automatically delete old email messages
C. Enable Content Compression on the BlackBerry device
D. Uninstall third-party applications
E. Move pictures from the BlackBerry device memory to the media card
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.16 A BlackBerry device user is trying to install BlackBerry Desktop Manager. The installation fails with the
following error message: Error 1904 Which two of the following troubleshooting steps should the user
employ to address this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Unregister and re-register the atl.dll file
B. Remove any IT policies from the BlackBerry device
C. Install BlackBerry Desktop Manager on a different Windows profile
D. Install a supported version of Microsoft Outlook
E. Update the MAPI subsystem to a compatible version
Answer: A,C

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NO.17 How many email accounts can be added to a BlackBerry Internet Service account? (Choose one.)
A. Ten third-party email accounts and one BlackBerry email address
B. Nine third-party email accounts and one BlackBerry email address
C. Up to ten email accounts with any combination of BlackBerry email addresses and third-party email
accounts
D. No limit on third-party email accounts and one BlackBerry email address
E. Up to eleven email accounts with any combination of BlackBerry email addresses and third-party email
accounts
Answer: A

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NO.18 A BlackBerry device user is having difficulty sending email messages that include attachments from
the BlackBerry device. What should the user do to resolve this issue? (Choose one.)
A. Change the Attachment Compression settings to Low on the BlackBerry device
B. Compress the attachments using the BlackBerry Zip To Go application before sending
C. Use Roxio Media Manager to convert the attachments for Optimal Upload
D. Use Bluetooth to send attachments larger than 2.6MB
E. Ensure the total attachment size does not exceed 5MB
Answer: E

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NO.19 Which two of the following synchronization options for the Calendar Data range can be customized for
BlackBerry Desktop Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Choose > Select Task Range
B. Enable Quick Entry
C. Choose to Transfer all past items
D. Select All scheduled items
E. Choose to Transfer only future items
Answer: D,E

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NO.20 Which two pieces of information are required to add a work email address to a BlackBerry Internet
Service account through advanced integration? (Choose two.)
A. The type of email integration
B. The messaging server address
C. The user name and password
D. The number of users on the messaging server
E. The MAC address of the messaging server
Answer: B,C

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Total Q&A: 240 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses the MySQL database.
You have created a new table named Employees in the database and performed update operation but
you got an error because of the last transaction. Now, you want to terminate the last transaction. Which of
the following commands can you use to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. ROLLBACK
B. REMOVE
C. DELETE
D. COMMIT
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as the database
platform. You have created a table named Students in the database. The structure of the table is as
follows:
Stu_ID NUMBER (3) PRIMARY KEY
Stu_Name VARCHAR2 (25) NOT NULL
Fee NUMBER (8, 2)
Class NUMBER (5);
You have executed the following statement for the table "Students":
SELECT e.Stu_Name, m.Fee
FROM Students e, Students m
WHERE e.Stu_ID = m.stu_ID;
Which of the following join types have you used in the above statement?
A. Cross join
B. Equijoin
C. Self join
D. Outer join
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following will be true about a table column if you plan to create an index on that column?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The column is often used in the WHERE clause of SQL statements.
B. The column contains very small number of NULL values.
C. The table is updated frequently.
D. The column should contain a wide range of values.
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which of the following properties of concurrency control refers to the requirement that other operations
cannot access or see the data in an intermediate state during the execution of a transaction?
A. Consistency
B. Durability
C. Atomicity
D. Isolation
Answer: D

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NO.5 DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the correct constraint types to their corresponding specifications.
Answer:

NO.6 You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as its database.
You have written two statements, which are as follows:
1. SELECT DISTINCT OBJECT_TYPE
FROM USER_OBJECTS;
2. SELECT OBJECT_TYPE
FROM ALL_OBJECTS;
Which of the following options explains the difference between the results of these two
statements? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The first statement will display distinct object types that can be accessed by the user.
B. The second statement will display all object types that a user can access.
C. The first statement will display distinct object types owned by a user.
D. The second statement will display all object types owned by a user.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 Which of the following terms is described in the statement below?
"It is procedural code that is automatically executed in response to certain events on a particular table or
view in a database."
A. Data type
B. Table
C. Datetime data type
D. Database trigger
Answer: D

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NO.8 You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as its database.
You have created two tables named Employees and Departments in the database. Now, you want to
display data from both tables. Which of the following actions will you perform to accomplish the task.?
A. Join
B. Table Merge operator
C. HAVING
D. GROUP BY
Answer: A

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NO.9 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.
The ________data type defines a date that is combined with a time of day along with fractional seconds
that is based on a 24-hour clock.
A. datetime
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following are true about UPDATE statements?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. You can use the WHERE clause to have your update affects a specific set of rows.
B. You use the SET clause to update multiple columns of a table separated by commas.
C. You can use co-related sub query in UPDATE statements to update data from other tables.
D. If you don't use the WHERE clause then the UPDATE will not update any rows in the table.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.11 Which of the following are the types of numeric literals that can be used in arithmetic expressions?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Numeric
B. Integer
C. Binary
D. Real
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 Adam works as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. He creates a table named Students.
He wants to create a new table named Class with the help of the Students table. Which of the following
syntaxes will Adam use to accomplish the task?
A. CREATE TABLE Class
INSERT INTO SELECT * FROM Students;
B. CREATE TABLE Class
FROM SELECT * FROM Students;
C. CREATE TABLE Class
(SELECT * FROM Students);
D. CREATE TABLE Class
AS SELECT * FROM Students;
Answer: D

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NO.13 You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as its database
development platform. You have created a table named Employees in the database.
You want to display the names of the employees whose salary is more than $5000, but you do not want to
display any duplicate content. Therefore, you have written the following query:
SELECT emp_id, DISTINCT emp_name WHERE salary > 5000
FROM Employees;
Which of the following statements is true about the above query?
A. The statement will display only unique names whose salary is more than $5000.
B. The UNIQUE clause should be used in place of the DISTINCT clause.
C. The statement will give an error.
D. The statement will display those records whose salary is more than $5000.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.
A______ provides a concise and flexible means for matching strings of text,
such as particular characters, words, or patterns of characters.
A. regular expression
Answer: A

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NO.15 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.
A ______specifies that the value of a column (or columns), upon which the index is based, must be
unique.
A. unique index
Answer: A

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NO.16 Consider the exhibit given below:
Which of the following queries will return the name of the customer who placed the highest amount of
orders and the total order amount?
A. SELECT CUSTOMER, MAX(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY) AS "TOTAL"
FROM ORDERS
GROUP BY CUSTOMER
/
B. SELECT CUSTOMER, SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY) AS "TOTAL"
FROM ORDERS
WHERE SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY)
=
(SELECT MAX(SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY)
)
FROM ORDERS
GROUP BY CUSTOMER)
GROUP BY CUSTOMER
/
C. SELECT CUSTOMER, SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY) AS "TOTAL"
FROM ORDERS
GROUP BY CUSTOMER
HAVING SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY)
=
(SELECT MAX(SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY)
)
FROM ORDERS
GROUP BY CUSTOMER)
/
D. SELECT CUSTOMER, SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY) AS "TOTAL"
FROM ORDERS
GROUP BY CUSTOMER
HAVING SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY)
=
(SELECT SUM(UNITPRICE*QUANTITY)
FROM ORDERS
GROUP BY CUSTOMER)
/
Answer: C

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NO.17 Adam works as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as its
database. Adam has created a table named Employees in the database. He wants to retrieve the
information of those employees who have at least one person reporting to them. Which of the following
queries will Adam execute to accomplish the task?
A. SELECT employee_id, last_name, job_id, department_id FROM Employees WHERE
employee_id EXISTS (SELECT manager_id WHERE manager_id is NULL);
B. SELECT employee_id, last_name, job_id, department_id FROM Employees HAVING
employee_id IN (SELECT manager_id FROM Employees WHERE manager_id is NOT NULL);
C. SELECT employee_id, last_name, job_id, department_id FROM Employees outer WHERE EXISTS
(SELECT 'x' FROM Employees WHERE manager_id = outer.employee_id);
D. SELECT employee_id, last_name, job_id, department_id FROM Employees WHERE
employee_id IN (SELECT manager_id WHERE manager_id is NOT NULL);
Answer: C

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NO.18 You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as its database.
You have created a table named Employees in the database. You want to create a list of
employees working in the organization, but you do not want to display any duplicate row in the report.
Which of the following statements will help you to accomplish the task?
A. SELECT emp_id, emp_name FROM Employees ORDER BY emp_id;
B. SELECT emp_id, emp_name FROM Employees;
C. SELECT DISTINCT emp_id, emp_name FROM Employees;
D. SELECT emp_id, emp_name FROM Employees GROUP BY emp_id;
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following statements is correct for equijoin used to join two tables named Employees and
Department?
A. SELECT Dept_Name, Emp_Name
FROM Departments d1, Employees e1
ORDER BY Dept_Name, Emp_Name;
B. SELECT D.Dept_Name, E.Emp_Name
FROM Departments d1, Employees e1
HAVING Dept_Name, Emp_Name;
C. SELECT E.Emp_Name, D.Dept_Name
FROM Departments d1, Employees e1
WHERE Dept_No = Dept_No
ORDER BY Dept_Name, Emp_Name;
D. SELECT Dept_Name, Emp_Name
FROM Departments d1, Employees e1
WHERE d1.Dept_No = e1.Dept_No
ORDER BY Dept_Name, Emp_Name;
Answer: D

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NO.20 You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as its database.
You have created a new table named Employees, which keeps all the information of the
employees. You want to add a new row to the Employees table. Which of the following statements will you
use to accomplish the task?
A. INSERT (column1, column2, ...columnN) INTO <table_name> VALUES(value1, value2, ...v alueN);
B. INSERT INTO <table_name>(column1, column2, ...columnN) VALUES(value1 ,value2,
...va lueN);
C. INSERT <table_name>(column1, column2, ...columnN), VALUES(value1, value2, ...valueN );
D. INSERT INTO <table_name>(column1, column2,... columnN), VALUES(value1, value2, ...v alueN);
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C_BOCR_08
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate – Crystal Reports 2008)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 292 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 In Crystal Reports you select multiple report objects at the same time. Which two menu options become
available when you right-click one of the selected objects? (Choose two.)
A. Move
B. Insert
C. Delete
D. Copy
E. Cut
Answer: D,E

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NO.2 What is the reason you cannot insert a Group layout chart in the Page Header section?
A. You do not have access to the database.
B. The Page Header section is suppressed.
C. A Group layout chart cannot be placed in the Page Header section.
D. You have not saved the report with data.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You design a Crystal summary report that is grouped by Region then by Customer Name. The Details
section is hidden. The report includes a bar chart that displays total orders by Customer Name for each
Region group. Which procedure will display the chart beside the sections that show Customer Name and
Total Sales?
A. Place the chart in the Group Header #1 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
B. Place the chart in the Details section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
C. Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
D. Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What two configuration options are valid for long Lists of Values (LOV) in Crystal Reports 2008?
(Choose two.)
A. UI Batch Size
B. Database Timeout
C. Maximum LOV Size
D. Maximum Rowset Records
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 You need a report that shows all customers and allows the report reader to view either a report listing all
days in the month to date or to view only the customers with daily sales greater than $5000. You decide to
use report alerts to accomplish this. Which formula properly sets the alert condition.?
A. Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000
B. Sum ({Orders.Order Date}, {Orders.Order Amount}, "daily") > 5000}
C. IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN crCondition = "Enabled"
D. IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN AlertMessage =
"Enabled"
Answer: A

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NO.6 You want to see a list of formulas containing references to a specific field. Which method can you use?
A. Browse Field
B. Repository Explorer
C. Formula Field Search
D. Global Formula Search
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which formula uses the correct syntax to assign a variable a value in Crystal syntax?
A. Numbervar x; x = 5;
B. Dim x as Number x = 5
C. Dim x as Number x := 5
D. Numbervar x; x := 5;
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which method can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report?
A. Select the Field option from the Insert menu.
B. Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the
Context menu.
C. Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
D. Click the Field button on the Formatting toolbar.
Answer: C

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NO.9 You are creating a Crystal report to show just the Top N countries in an international sales report based
on total sales for the previous quarter. The value of N is dynamic.
Which method must you use to achieve the required result?
A. Using the Group Select Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Add a conditional formula to
view just the Top N countries.
B. After creating a parameter to set the value of N, reference that parameter within the Group Sort Expert.
Refresh the report setting the value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
C. Using the Group Sort Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Refresh the report setting the
value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
D. After creating a parameter to set the value of N, refresh the report to view just those countries with a
grand total that is greater than N.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two formulas can you use to determine whether the content of a string is a number? (Choose
two.)
A. IsNumber({Orders.Customer ID})
B. NumberText({Orders.Customer ID})
C. IsNumeric({Orders.Customer ID})
D. NumericText({Orders.Customer ID})
Answer: C,D

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NO.11 Which three lines of code will generate an error? (Choose three.)
A. Local Number x := 1;
B. Local NumberVal x := 1;
C. Local NumberVar x := 1;
D. Local NumberValue x := 1;
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.12 You copy a report from BusinessObjects Enterprise and modify the report. Which two methods can you
use to save changes back to BusinessObjects Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A. Save the report using the Report Explorer.
B. From the Main menu, select Save and choose Enterprise.
C. From the Main menu, select Save and choose Web Folders.
D. Save the report using the Repository Explorer.
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 Which two methods can you use to change the appearance of an object that you add to a Crystal report?
(Choose two.)
A. Hold down CTRL + Spacebar and click on the object.
B. Right-click the object and use the Format Editor.
C. Select the object and use the Formatting toolbar.
D. Drag-and-drop the object to the Formatting toolbar.
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 Which special field can you use to display the date a report was last changed?
A. Modification Date
B. Modification LastDate
C. Modification LastUpdate
D. Modification Time
Answer: A

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NO.15 After you select a BusinessObjects Universe to use as the data source for a Crystal report, you create
a query using the BusinessObjects Query Panel. What must you do to access the underlying data
source?
A. Create a local cache of the data source.
B. Create a connection to the data source.
C. Create a local ODBC resource for the data source.
D. Log in to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
Answer: D

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NO.16 You create a new Crystal report and want to add a Top N sort, but the Group Sort Expert is inactive.
How can you activate the Group Sort Expert?
A. Insert a group name field.
B. Insert a summary field.
C. Insert a running total field.
D. Insert a formula field.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which two statements describe how optional prompts behave in Crystal Reports 2008? (Choose two.)
A. If no value is entered in the prompt, all values are returned.
B. If no value is entered in the prompt, no values are returned.
C. If the parent prompt is optional, the child prompt must be optional.
D. If the child prompt is optional, the parent prompt must be optional.
Answer: A,C

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NO.18 You want to use the Workbench feature to manage multiple reports and publish them to
BusinessObjects Enterprise as object packages. Your manager is concerned that any Crystal user could
access and make changes to the reports located on the Workbench. How can you address your
manager's concerns?
A. Encrypt object packages.
B. Password protect object packages.
C. Assign appropriate permissions to object packages that are published to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
D. Track changes on object packages using the Dependency Checker.
Answer: C

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NO.19 You must create a static array in a Crystal report to be used for numeric calculations in other formulas.
How can you do this?
A. Global NumberVar Array newArray := Array (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
B. Global NumberVar Array newArray := MakeArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
C. Global NumberVar Array newArray := CreateArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
D. Global NumberVar Array newArray := DefineArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
Answer: B

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NO.20 When should you use parameters?
A. When creating conditional Top N reports.
B. When identifying the data source location.
C. When identifying trends in data.
D. When creating dynamic groups.
Answer: D

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