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Exam Code: HP0-Y43
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Network Infrastructure Solutions Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 62 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 View the exhibits.
Exhibit 1
The frame has these characteristics:
-VLANID = 3
-802.1p = 3
-DSCP=32
-Source IP address = 10.1.1.5
Click here for Exhibit 2
The frame shown in Exhibit 1 arrives on an HP 5800 switch's GigabitEthernet port 1/0/1. QoS maps are at
their default settings. Based on the configuration shown in Exhibit 2, to which queue is the outbound
packet assigned?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: D

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NO.2 View the exhibit.
The exhibit shows a network with HP 5400 zl and 8200 zl switches throughout the core and edge. What is
one advantage of implementing routing on edge switches?
A. Typically, it is easier to implement user-based VLAN assignments.
B. The topology has higher redundancy because edge switches can take over routing roles when
necessary.
C. Typically, the network can use fewer total VLANs when edge switches implement routing.
D. Typically, it is easier to ensure that routed links between edge and core switches are fully utilized.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A company has a network that includes HP 5800 and 12500 switches. Usage demands on the
company's FTP servers have increased, causing performance issues during peak usage times. While
analyzing link utilization, the network administrator noticed that the most heavily utilized links experience
bursts of congestion, causing them to drop traffic. The links then experience brief periods of low utilization
followed by another burst of congestion. This pattern continues periodically throughout the peak utilization
time.
What should the network administrator do to attempt to create a more efficient traffic pattern on these
links?
A. Configure an outbound traffic policing policy on the ports in question, setting the CIR at about sixty
percent of the ports' capacity and the PIR at about eighty percent.
B. Apply Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ) or Weighted Round Robin (WRR) scheduling in preference to
Strict Priority (SP) scheduling on the ports in question.
C. Configure inbound traffic policing policies on ports at the core, setting the CIR at about sixty percent of
the ports' capacity and the PIR at about eighty percent. Apply outbound generic traffic shaping (GTS) on
ports facing the core ports, setting the CIR equal to the CIR on the core ports.
D. Apply a WRED table to the ports in question, optionally adjusting the table values to drop lower priority
traffic first.
Answer: D

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NO.4 How can a high density of ports and high throughput at the core of an HP FlexNetwork save customers
money?
A. Intelligence is offloaded from the edge switches, enabling customers to save money on the most
numerous switches in their solutions.
B. The customer can combine the data center and campus LAN core into a single entity, reducing power
and cooling costs.
C. The customer no longer needs to deploy modular switches at the distribution level and the edge,
deploying more cost-effective stackable switches instead.
D. The architecture can be simplified, eliminating expensive distribution devices and reducing power and
cooling costs.
Answer: D

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NO.5 View the exhibit.
A network administrator wants to configure an HP 5800 switch to place all incoming traffic on the
GigabitEthernet 1/0/1 port in priority queue 3. However, one exception applies. All traffic incoming on that
port that is destined to UDP port 55555 should be forwarded in priority queue 4 and marked with DSCP
32.
Based on the current configurations shown in the exhibit, which further steps must the network
administrator perform? (Select two.)
A. Configure port GigabitEthernet 1>0/1 to trust DSCP
B. Apply QoS policy Policy1 as on inbound policyon port GigabitEthernet 1/0/l
C. Apply QoS policy Policy2 as on inbound policyon port GigabitEthernet 1/0/1
D. Create a OoS Ip-dscp mapthat maps Ip value 4 to DSCP02
E. Undo OoS trust on port GigabitEthernet 1/0/1
Answer: B,E

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NO.6 Which switch is best suited to act at the edge of a medium to large HP FlexFabric solution?
A. 10500
B. 5500
C. 9500
D. 5830
Answer: D

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NO.7 A network includes a mix of IGMPv2 and IGMPv3 endpoints and must support the following source
specific multicasting applications:
-Source: 10.1.4.2 and Group: 232.0.5.5
-Source: 10.1.4.12 and Group 232.0.6.6
The network is already implementing PIM-SM and IGMPv3. In order to support these applications, the HP
10500 switches that act as routers for the endpoints in question must support another feature. Which step
must the network administrator perform on each of these switches?
A. Create an SSM policy that includes 232.0.5.5 and 232.0.6.6 within its range
B. Enable IGMPv2 backward compatibility mode
C. Configure two SSM maps, each of which mapsa source to its multicast group
D. Enable PIM SSM on the interfaces that connect to the endpoints
Answer: C

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NO.8 A customer requires an HP FlexCampus solution with a core that scales to 40/100G. Which HP switch
fabric meets this need?
A. the 7500's CLOS switch fabric
B. the 10500's CLOS switch fabric
C. the 7500's crossbar switch fabric
D. the 10500's crossbar switch fabric
Answer: B

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NO.9 A company has a service level agreement (SLA) with its service provider. The SLA specifies a 2 Mbps
committed information rate (CIR) and 20 KB committed burst size (CBS). Lately, during peak usage times,
the company has been experiencing brief periods of poor performance on its external connection
(GigabitEthernet port 2/0/1 on an HP 5800 switch).
How can the network administrator configure the Comware switch to address this problem?
A. Configure a traffic classifier that selects all traffic and a car traffic behavior that sets the CIR to 2 Mbps
and the CBS to 20 KB. Create a QoS policy that maps the classifier to the action and apply this policy as
an inbound policy on port GigabitEthernet 2/0/1.
B. Enable Strict Priority (SP) scheduling on port GigabitEthernet 2/0/1 and ensure that all inbound traffic is
marked with the correct priority.
C. Configure generic traffic shaping (GTS) on the GigabitEthernet port 2/0/1, setting the CIR to 2 Mbps
and the CBS to 20 KB.
D. Configure a traffic classifier that selects all traffic and a car traffic behavior that sets the CIR to 2 Mbps
and the CBS to 20 KB. Create a OoS policy that maps the classifier to the action and apply this policy as
an outbound policy on port GigabitEthernet 2/0/1.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the role of neighbor solicitation (NS) messages in the autoconfiguration of an IPv6 address.?
A. An IPv6 node sends an NS message to inform a node undergoing autoconfiguration that it is already
using a particular address.
B. An IPv6 node sends an NS message for its tentative address to determine whether another node is
using it.
C. An IPv6 node sends an NS message for the global prefix to prompt other IPv6 nodes to advertise the
addresses that they are using on that prefix.
D. An IPv6 node sends an NS message to prompt an IPv6 router on the link to advertise the global
prefixes associated with the link immediately.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-B93
Exam Name: HP (Customer Comm Mgt-Design and Production)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which PDF version does PDF/A-1b Output produce?
A. PDF version1.3
B. PDF version 1.4
C. PDF version 1.5
D. PDF version 1.6
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which features are included in High-Volume Delivery? (Select three.)
A. dynamic output file naming
B. multiple-up support
C. imposition
D. bundling
E. text box flow
F. unlimited page numbering
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 Which feature does Advanced Campaign Management include?
A. unlimited messages
B. background colors
C. usage charts
D. ability to link campaigns together
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 What is an extension of the Postscript printer language.?
A. PDX
B. PCL
C. AFP
D. VIPP
Answer: A

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NO.5 What capability is a prerequisite for the LiveWorkflow module?
A. some type of fulfillment
B. LiveDesign
C. some type of repository
D. Live Editor
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-D15
Exam Name: HP (Administering HP CloudSystem Matrix Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What are Central Management Server (CMS) best practices? (Select two)
A. License and manage the CMS as a logical server
B. Install the CMS on a virtual server
C. Configure CMS to boot from SAN with redundant boot volumes
D. Do not license and manage CMS as a logical server
E. The CMS and vCenter should share the same physical server
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 A private cloud environment increases its capabilities to handle peak loads or unanticipated
activity by using additional built into the implementation. Which term describes this action?
A. Brokering
B. Local bursting
C. Exception provisioning
D. Dual bursting
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are the minimum components required to build a valid template in IO Designer?
A. Server, network, and disk
B. Server only
C. Server and disk only
D. Server and network only
Answer: A

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NO.4 There are a number of preconfigured discovery jobs displayed in the discovery pane. What is
the
recommended first job to be run?
A. CMS and its management processor
B. Physical server
C. Onboard Administrator
D. Management processors
Answer: A

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NO.5 One of your customer is reporting that all of their service requests are failing. Other users in
this
customer’s organization are not reporting any trouble. Where do you view details on the services
events and generate a printable report?
A. Infrastructure Orchestration Events Collection
B. HP Active Health System
C. Systems Insight Manager Audit Logs
D. Systems Insight Manager Reports
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-D23
Exam Name: HP (Architecting HP CloudSystem Solutions - Delta)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 67 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What does this icon represent in the IO Designer interface?
A. A network trunk
B. An iSCSI network
C. A single VLAN
D. A pair of physical networks
Answer:A

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NO.2 A QA department wants to have an account that can build templates for their own people to
use,
without needing to go through administrative processes to configure them. To provide this level
of access, which user group does this account need to be added?
A. HPIO_Users
B. HPIO_Architects
C. HPIO_Administrators
D. HPIO_Designers
Answer:B

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NO.3 There are a number of preconfigured discovery jobs displayed in the Discovery pane. What is
the
recommended first job to be run?
A. Physical servers
B. CMS and its management processors
C. Onboard Administrator
D. Management processors
Answer:B

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NO.4 A customer needs a service that consists of a physical server with one NIC that uses multiple
VLANs. Which IO Designer template feature addresses this need?
A. VLAN multi-tenancy
B. Load-balanced network
C. Network template
D. Network trunk
Answer:A

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NO.5 A QA department expecting to test a new application in the next quarter. Which low-cost solution
can the cloud administrator take to help reduce the performance impact on other departments?
A. Block out dates for the QA department exclusive access to the cloud resources by moving the
server resources server over to a QA only server pool.
B. Use the IO Calendar tab to find projected low cloud utilization periods the QA department
cloud schedule for their test.
C. Review SiteScope records to find what times of the day utilizations lowest and recommended
the QA department test them
D. Plan and order additional servers and storage to add the cloud resources pools prior to the
planned testing.
Answer:C

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Exam Code: HP2-N41
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP ArcSight Information Security Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 53 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which statements are true about HP ArcSight solution architecture as a platform for
monitoring modern threats and risks? (Select three.)
A. It measures security effectiveness across people, process, and technology.
B. It includes dynamic analytics and policy enforcement, as well as predictive intelligence.
C. It accelerates time-to-value for achieving secure applications.
D. It captures logs, correlates events, monitors applications, checks for fraud, and provides manager
uses and controls.
E. It is augmented by services expertise and the most advanced security user community:
Protect724.
F. It delivers risk intelligence from application development to improve operational security.
Answer: A,D,E

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Reference:http://www.realsec.com/risk2012 /predavanja/RiSK%202012,%20HP%20ES,%20Advancin
g%20the%20enterprise %20beyond%20tactical%20security.pdf(slide 26)

NO.2 What is the key message about HP's Global security research efforts?
A. Collaborative effort of HP teams: DVLabs, ArcSight, Fortify, HP Labs
B. Discovering two times more software vulnerabilities than other IPS, NGFW vendors and
continuously finding more than the rest of the market combined
C. SANS, CERT, NIST, OSVDB, software and reputation vendors contributing information to the
ThreatLinQ security portal
D. Over 2000 customers helping DVLabs collect network and security data from around the globe
Answer: A

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Reference:https://h30613.www3.hp.com/media/files/downloads/Non-FilmedSessions/DT3058_Bla
ckmer.pdf(slide 12)

NO.3 Which problems does HP EnterpriseView address?
A. mines data from across the entire enterprise, including HP Server Automation, HP Network
Automation, and HP Operations Orchestration
B. collects, analyzes, and correlates your servers' data to give you better visibility into your risk
C. lets customers track their compliance state across their virtualized environments and helps
manage their software compliance regulations
D. provides vulnerability management, asset profiling, risk management
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.secure.edu.pl/pdf/ 2012 /D2_1045_P_Hnevkovsky.pdf(slide 24)

NO.4 Which disruptive technology trend is relevant to ArcSight?
A. The decrease in the traditional corporate perimeter
B. Complexity resulting from removing blind spots
C. The increased drive to adopt new technologies
D. The decline of security compliance
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.sap.com/germany/about/events/SAP-Forum-Public-Services2012 /pdfs/WS1_
Lemke.pdf(slide 3)

NO.5 Enterprises and governments are facing the most aggressive threat environment in their
history.
What is the main issue that is causing attacks to be more profound or wide-reaching?
A. Adversaries have become smarter, better organized, and more persistent as they look to gain
information capital and IP .
B. At any point in time, there are 200-300 potential security vulnerabilities representing thousands
of potential ways to be exploited.
C. Very few technology executives can confidently answer the simple question from their CEO: "How
secure is my business?"
D. Cyber threats are proven to be proliferating much slower.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is a benefit of a holistic approach to security?
A. Decreasing the number of new security breaches
B. Proactive risk reduction: seeing everything, providing context, and acting appropriately
C. Increasing the protection of your cloud environment
D. Firefighting to solve a problem when a breach occurs
Answer: B

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NO.7 The HP TippingPoint Network Defense System is a complete set of security solutions that does
what?
A. Delivers risk intelligence from application development to improve operational security
B. Measures security effectiveness across people, process, and technology
C. Addresses advanced security threats at the perimeter and core of your business
D. Includes dynamic analytics and policy deployment, as well as zero-day defense
E. Protects business critical applications from cyber attacks
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which statement best describes HP VDI reference architectures for midmarket businesses?
A. They are monolithic designs that implement HP-only products.
B. They provide general suggestions for do-it-yourself client virtualization implementations.
C. They provide end-to-end solutions that are fully-tested, customizable, do-it-yourself blueprints
for midmarket businesses.
D. Although they are written for enterprise customers. HP VDI reference architectures can be
adapted to mid-sized businesses.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is a unique feature of HP client virtualization (CV) reference architectures that applies
only to Citrix VDI-in-a-Box?
A. The personal vDisk feature permits users to install applications without impacting the master
image, providing increased user flexibility and IT efficiency.
B. It delivers predictable, repeatable cost and performance when using either a single ProLiant
DL380p or a grid of DL380p servers
C. It is a recipe for simple, one-server solution with integrated storage, management, and client
virtualization software
D. It easily scales out to adapt to business changes and BYOD initiatives.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the significance of the HP FlexNetwork architecture?
A. The three-tier design is significantly optimized for premier network performance.
B. The homogeneity enables network monitoring with a single-pane-of-glass management
application.
C. The design enables businesses to more easily align business initiatives and network requirements.
D. It has more than 150 innovative embedded technologies to significantly simplify network
management
Answer: C

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Reference:http://h17007.www1.hp.com/docs/mark/FlexNetworkBrochure.pdf(page 3, segmenting
the network into modular building blocks, 2ndpara)

NO.4 You think your customer may not be aware of the impact of adding voice to a data network. To
ensure the best possible outcome, how should you approach them?
A. Lead with the introduction of HP FlexNetwork. Describe how it scales on three dimensions.
Follow-up with a suggestion that they perform a network assessment.
B. Lead with the introduction of HP FlexNetwork. Describe how it scales on three dimensions and
delivers unparalleled performance.
C. Lead with a recommendation for a network assessment. Introduce HP FlexNetwork and discuss
how it scales on three dimensions and delivers unparalleled performance.
D. Lead with a recommendation for a network assessment. Ask about future plans to make
significant changes. Then introduce HP FlexNetwork.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the primary purpose of the Partner Sales Advantage (PSA) tool?
A. to build and manage a list of prospective customers
B. to serve as a repository for strategic sales tools
C. to explore customers' business environments and top pain points
D. to compare similar products and identify the best fit based on customer needs
Answer: C

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NO.6 According to Just Right IT, what are the initiatives that small businesses care most about?
A. Manage, connect, grow
B. Manage, protect, grow
C. Share, create, print
D. Share, connect, store
Answer: A

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NO.7 Your customer has seven employees in a new business and needs a networking solution.
Which switch series should you recommend?
A. HP 1405 Switch Series
B. HP 1810 Switch Series
C. HP 2510 Switch Series
D. HP 2910 Switch Series
Answer: A

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NO.8 Who are HP's strategic client virtualization software partners?
A. VMware, Microsoft, and Desktone
B. VMware, Microsoft, and ClearCube
C. VMware, Citrix, and Ericom
D. VMware, Citrix, and Microsoft
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-J62
Exam Name: HP (HP Storage Solutions Foundation)
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Total Q&A: 93 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which device typically has a SCSi ID of?
A. Narrow SCSi tape
B. SCSi host adapter
C. Bootable Hard Drive
D. First . . . device
Answer: B

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NO.2 A company is planning an online backup strategy for a highly available database
application. Which key component must be included in the backup strategy?
A. Rollback logs
B. Temp logs
C. Transaction logs
D. Event logs
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which functions are provided by server-based storage virtualization? (Select two.)
A. Host path failover
B. Volume sharing among multiple servers
C. Performance load balancing of SAN connections
D. Intelligent LUN expansion and reduction
E. Thin provisioning
Answer: B, E

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NO.4 A company is planning to implement a backup and archiving solution. They have the
following requirements:
• Corrupt data files must be restored within seconds
• Archived data must be available for 15 years.
• Archived data must be stored off-site.
Which types of solutions should the company use? (Select two.)
A. Remote replication for backup data
B. Remote replication for archived data
C. Tape-based storage for backup data
D. Tape-based storage for archived data
E. Disk-based storage for backup data
F. Disk-based storage for archived data
Answer: A, D

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NO.5 A mid-sized company with a small virtual tape library needs to implement a low-cost
deduplication strategy. The data to be backed up is in a variety of formats and is not
mission-critical. Which deduplication technology meets this company's requirements?
A. Hash-based chunking
B. Object-level differencing
C. Post-copy comparison
D. Host-level file swapping
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is a main difference between Small Form Factor Pluggable (SFP) and Small Form
Factor Pluggable plus (SFP+) modules?
A. Port density
B. Physical size
C. Maximum transfer rate
D. Different pinout
Answer: C

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NO.7 A company needs a solution that provides storage only as needed. The company's goal
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operating expenditures. Which type of storage implementation meets these
requirements?
A. Thin provisioning
B. Scale-out storage arrays
C. Scale-up storage servers
D. Virtual storage arrays
Answer: D

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