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Exam Code: CMS7
Exam Name: Peoplecert (ITIL V3 Foundation )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 370 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
Portfolio
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is a RACI model used for?
A. Defining roles and responsibilities
B. Monitoring services
C. Performance analysis
D. Recording Configuration Items
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
B. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A change that correctly follows the required change process
Answer: B

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NO.5 Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
A. Services and Infrastructure
B. Applications and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
Answer: C

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NO.6 Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the
business by?
A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
Answer: C

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NO.7 In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability
Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
Answer: B

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NO.8 The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
A. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following module would be MOST useful in helping to define an organizational structure?
A. RACI model
B. Service Model
C. Continual Service improvement (CSI) model.
D. The Deming Cycle
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?.
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill tominimize
the cost of training them
B. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to
keep them in the role where they have been trained
C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or
supervisory roles
D. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low
and this helps to minimize salaries
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill tominimize
the cost of training them
B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or
supervisory roles
C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low
and this helps to minimize salaries
D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to
keep them in the role where they have been trained
Answer: B

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NO.15 A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
A. The contract is being negotiated
B. The contract is about to be ended
C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon
D. The contract has been agreed
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
What services to offer and to whom?
What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?
A. Service Catalogue Manager
B. IT Designer/Architect
C. Process Manager
D. Supplier Manager
Answer: D

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NO.18 How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
B. There should be a single Plan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
C. There should be a single Plan and Do,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
Answer: D

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NO.19 The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of Market Spaces
C. The design of new or changed services
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
Answer: B

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Exam Name: PRINCE2 (PRINCE2 Practitioner Exam)
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Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of the following statements describes an outcome?
A. Any of the projects specialist products
B. A result of the change derived from using the project's products
C. A measurable improvement resulting from a change
D. Something perceived as advantages by a stakeholder
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following principles uses Product Descriptions to provide clarity by defining each
product's purpose, composition, derivation, format, quality criteria and quality method?
A. Tailor to suit the project environment
B. Focus on products
C. Manage by stages
D. Continued business justification
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following principles describes this statement?" xxx defines tolerances for each
project objective to establish limits of delegated authority"
A. Manage by stages
B. Focus on products
C. Manage by exception
D. Learn from experience
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following should NOT be included in the business case?
A. Reasons
B. Major Risks
C. Business options
D. Business approach
Answer: D

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NO.5 The Manage by Exception principle sets tolerances for six areas of the project, Time. Cost and
Quality are three of them, what are the other three?
A. Scope, People & Resources, Benefit
B. Scope, Risk, Product
C. Risk, Benefit, Product
D. Scope, Risk, Benefit
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement best explains the purpose of Tailor to suit the project environment?
A. Ensure project controls are based on project's scale, complexity, importance, capability and risk
B. To use a set of pre-defined templates for the size of project
C. To tailor the use of the principles to suit the project
D. To pick which PRINCE2 processes to apply and which to leave out
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Continued Business Justification?
A. The justification for the project must remain the same throughout the project
B. The justification for the project should remain valid
C. The justification for the project may change
D. If the project is no longer justified it should be stopped
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
The Learn from Experience principle suggests that lessons should be actively sought...
A. When Starting a Project
B. When Initiating a Project
C. As the project progresses
D. As the project closes
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Motorola Solutions (Lean Six Sigma Black Belt)
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Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What is the purpose of performing a Stakeholder Analysis?
A. Analyze the strength of commitment needed for project stakeholders vs. where they are currently
B. Analyze the risk for the project
C. Analyze the completeness of charter for the project
D. Analyze the methodology chosen for the project
Answer: A

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7. Which of the following terms refers to a trial implementation of the proposed design or
process change on a reduced scale?
A. Production Run
B. Pilot
C. Design of Experiments
D. Comparative Method
Answer: B

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8. What is the correct order of steps in an experiment (DOE)?
-Design the experiment & plan data collection -Run the experiment and collect data -State the
problem or objective -Analyze the results -Interpret the results"
A. 1,3,4,2,5
B. 3, 1, 2,4,5
C. 3,1,4,2,5
D. 3, 1, 2, 5,4
Answer: B

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NO.2 Electrical devices are evaluated as conforming or not conforming to specifications. The
appropriate data type is:
A. Nominal discrete data
B. Continuous data
C. Ordinal data
D. Variable data
Answer: A

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NO.3 After developing a Process map (listing steps and functions), the first step in developing an
FMEA is:
A. Brainstorming possible failure modes with team members
B. Assigning scores for SEVERITY , OCCURRENCE and DETECTION
C. Calculating RPN-Risk Priority Number
D. Prioritizing failure modes for action or resolution
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the most powerful factor in achieving success in Six Sigma in an organization?
A. Strategic Integration
B. Business Process Framework
C. A consistent, disciplined team meeting schedule
D. Committed Leadership
Answer: D

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NO.5 In a statistical analysis, the beta risk () is:
A. The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true
B. Always equal to 0.10
C. Driven by the cost of sampling
D. The probability of failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false
Answer: D

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NO.6 For a multiple regression model, the R2 is the parameter that:
A. Represents the fraction of total variation explained by the model
B. Explains the strength of only one of the inputs in the model
C. Explains if the input factor causes the output response
D. Quantifies the slope of the line in the model
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is false.? Select the correct answer.
A. A sub-controller capability is responsible for composing nested composition logic.
B. A sub-controller capability is responsible for composing other service capabilities.
C. A sub-controller capability composes other service capabilities while it itself is also composed by other
service capabilities.
D. A sub-controller can only compose other service capabilities but it cannot itself be composed.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is not a meta abstraction type associated with the Service Abstraction principle?
Select the correct answer.
A. functional
B. technology
C. programmatic
D. state
Answer: D

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NO.3 The design principle most associated with an approach whereby the technical interface or contract of a
service is designed prior to its underlying logic is: Select the correct answer.
A. Service Autonomy
B. Service Reusability
C. Service Composability
D. Standardized Service Contract
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements reveal common misunderstandings about service-orientation and
SOA? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. In order for an enterprise to be successful with SOA, enterprise-wide standardization is
required.
B. Service-orientation is a revolutionary paradigm that is incompatible with existing paradigms and
practices.
C. Adoption of service-orientation will return an immediate ROI due to its focus on tactical (shortterm)
requirements fulfillment.
D. In order for an enterprise to be successful with SOA, an understanding of service-orientation is
required.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 Fill in the blanks for the following definition of the Service Discoverability design principle: "Services are
supplemented with communicative metadata by which they can be effectively __________________ and
__________________." Select the correct answer.
A. designed, discovered
B. discovered, interpreted
C. discovered, refactored
D. discovered, deployed
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following is not a state deferral option that is commonly used in support of applying the
Service Statelessness principle? Select the correct answer.
A. database
B. utility service
C. messages
D. service registry
Answer: D

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NO.7 The decoupling of a service contract from the service's underlying implementation results in a(n)
__________________ in the service's level of abstraction because __________________ service
implementation details helps prevent service consumers from being designed to indirectly couple to the
underlying service implementation. Select the correct answer.
A. increase, hiding
B. increase, publishing
C. decrease, hiding
D. decrease, publishing
Answer: A

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NO.8 A company is about to release a service for worldwide usage. As a result, the service contract receives
a great deal of attention. After a review it is decided to limit the service contract content to only what is
deemed absolutely necessary and to further have the service's Service Level
Agreement (SLA) translated into several different languages so that the service can be easily located by
those who may want to use it. Which pair of service-orientation principles directly supports these
design-time considerations? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Autonomy, Service Reusability
B. Service Statelessness, Standardized Service Contract
C. Service Discoverability, Service Abstraction
D. Service Reusability, Service Statelessness
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following is a common reason as to why the Standardized Service Contract principle is not
followed in some organizations? Select the correct answer.
A. Development tools are used to auto-generate the details of the technical service contract.
B. Developers ignore service contract design standards.
C. Developers are required to use pre-defined third-party service contracts obtained with the purchase of
legacy system adapters.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following statements are true? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. The adoption of service-orientation can result in an increased overall time and cost for the initial
delivery of service logic.
B. The adoption of service-orientation can result in increased design complexity due to a constant
emphasis on reuse.
C. The adoption of service-orientation can result in an emphasis on tactical (short-term) rather than
strategic (long-term) planning in order to justify a quick ROI.
D. The adoption of service-orientation can result in a need to introduce a governance structure that may
introduce new organizational roles and processes.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.11 Which of the following statements correctly explains the difference between the Service
Abstraction and Service Loose Coupling principles? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Abstraction is focused on dependencies that exist between the service contract and its
underlying logic, whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on fostering "loose state" in support of
runtime state deferral
B. Service Abstraction is focused on agnostic service logic only in order to establish an agnostic
abstraction layer, whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on the relationship between the service
contract and service consumers.
C. Service Abstraction is focused on hiding information about service implementation details, whereas
Service Loose Coupling is focused on the positioning of the service contract in relation to the service
implementation and service consumers.
D. There is no difference between these two principles. One principle name is used instead of the other
depending on whether you are building loose or tight service abstraction layers.
Answer: C

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NO.12 When applying the Service Loose Coupling design principle, we want to __________________ the
coupling of the service logic to the service contract because that allows the service contract to remain
__________________ from the service logic. Select the correct answer.
A. increase, decoupled
B. reduce, decoupled
C. increase, coupled
D. reduce, coupled
Answer: A

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NO.13 Each time our corporate development team makes a change to the service logic it is required to
publish a new version of the service contract. Our customers are complaining because their service
consumer programs become incompatible with new service contract versions and therefore no longer
work. Which of the following service-orientation principles is most likely to help us solve this on-going
problem? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Reusability
B. Service Statelessness
C. Service Loose Coupling
D. Service Autonomy
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following statements describes service re-composability, as it relates to the Service
Composability principle? Select the correct answer.
A. I have a service that is part of a service composition.
B. I have a service composition with 5 services.
C. I have a service that is part of 2 service compositions.
D. I have 2 service compositions that are part of 2 service inventories.
Answer: C

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NO.15 As the quantity of services in service inventories increase, the potential for service compositions to
become larger and more complex increases also. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C90-01A
Exam Name: SOA Certified Professional (Fundamental Cloud Computing(C90.01))
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Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Measured usage is only limited to tracking statistics for billing purposes. It does not encompass the
general monitoring of IT resources and related usage reporting. Therefore, measured usage is only
relevant to clouds that charge for usage. Select the correct answer. ?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following are common types of cloud service consumers? SelectALL THAT APPLY
A. Software programs capable of remotely accessing cloud services with published service contracts.
B. Services capable of remotely accessing cloud services with published service contracts.
C. Humans that use workstations running software capable of remotely accessing IT resources positioned
as cloud services.
D. Mobile devices running software capable of remotely accessing IT resources positioned as cloud
services.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 The Limited Portability Between Cloud Providers challenge of cloud computing can occur when an
absence of industry standards (or an absence of compliance to industry standards) requires that cloud
consumers build cloud-based solutions to conform to proprietary requirements imposed by cloud
providers. This makes it more difficult to move to new cloud providers in the future.Select the correct
answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.4 Service agents are provided only by runtime environments and operating systems. As a result, service
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A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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consumers at a cost. Select the correct answer.
A. public
B. on-premise
C. private
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: L50-502
Exam Name: LSI (LSI SVM5 Solutions Architect)
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Total Q&A: 114 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A customer has an environment that includes existing VMware disks that must be imported into SVM.
VMware marks a signature on the volumes which identifies the controller WWNN and LUN ID. Which
statement describes what you need to take into account when migrating the VMware disks under SVM
control?
A. VMware will not resignature automatically.
B. VMware will present the same LUN ID after importing.
C. VMware will modify the DPM WWNN to match the array WWNN.
D. VMware resignaturing must be set correctly.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are implementing zoning for an SVM 5 environment. Which rule should you observe when zoning
servers with DPMs?
A. There should be no more than four paths per DPM to any one server.
B. There should be no more than two paths per DPM to any one server.
C. All servers and DPM front-end ports should reside in the same zone.
D. The servers should be zoned directly with the storage controllers.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Your customer would like to consolidate multiple storage arrays which are currently under-utilized. The
SAN is not currently managed by SVM. The customer desires the minimal impact to their applications.
Which two statements describe the process to consolidate the arrays under SVM? (Choose two.)
A. Import existing LUNs into SVM pools.
B. Use multiMigrate to move the volumes to the desired array.
C. Use asynchronous mirror to move the volumes to the desired array.
D. Use multiMigrate to move the volumes to the desired array and remove SVM.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 You are trying to determine the optimal solution to meet the data recovery needs of a customer. What
will provide your customer with the smallest recovery time objective and array failure protection?
A. asynchronous multiMirror
B. multiView
C. multiCopy
D. synchronous multiMirror
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are deploying ESX servers with SVM. You have followed the recommended best practice and
have designed your front-end SAN to have redundant fabrics and allowed for both HBA initiator ports to
see both DPMs. You have created SVM volumes and have presented them to your ESX servers. After
performing an HBA rescan from an ESX server, how many paths should be available to each LUN?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: B

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NO.6 You have a disaster recovery scenario where newly created SVM Views will be presented to an ESX
server or ESX cluster at a secondary site. To avoid importing the views as new volumes, which ESX
advanced setting should be enabled?
A. port retry
B. resignature
C. device reset
D. LUN reset
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer has an AIX high availability cluster multiprocessing (HACMP) environment and would like to
use SVM to provide additional storage to the cluster. Which consideration must be met to access the new
volumes?
A. The AIX light agent must be installed on all nodes.
B. The new volumes must be imported into a volume group.
C. The LSI failover driver must be installed on all nodes.
D. The MPIO driver must be disabled on all nodes.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A financial institution has an Oracle application that is critical to its business. Which three factors will
enable you to assess how to provide high availability and recovery? (Choose three.)
A. application recovery time objective
B. application recovery point objective
C. distance between data centers
D. number of network adapters
E. distance between servers
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 A customer would like to implement SVM into their current storage environment and has asked you to
provide a detailed overview of both the SVM and DPM architectures. Where would you suggest that they
locate the required information?
A. Host Compatibility Matrix
B. Deployment Guide for SVM 4
C. SVM User Guide
D. Configuration Knowledge Base for SVM 5
Answer: C

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NO.10 Your customer is looking for a high availability solution for company-critical data with an RPO of 0.
Periodically the customer would like to verify the integrity of replicated data. You configure two SVM
domains on two sites and use synchronous multiMirror between the two sites. What are two methods to
verify the data? (Choose two.)
A. Create a PiT on the synchronous multiMirror group, create a view on the second synchronous mirror
job PiT and assign it to a host.
B. Use multiCopy for one of the synchronous multiMirror jobs and then assign the destination volume to a
host.
C. Create a PiT on the second synchronous multiMirror job, create a view for that PiT and assign it to a
host.
D. Create a PiT on the first synchronous multiMirror job, create a view for that PiT and assign it to a host.
Answer: A,C

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NO.11 A retailer with a SQL database must pull statistics from a production database but would like to do so
without interfering with production work. The statistics are required by three different departments. Which
two methods could be used to do this? (Choose two.)
A. Use multiMigrate on the database volume with one job and assign the destination volume to the three
hosts.
B. Use multiMirror asynchronous on the database volume with three jobs and assign the jobs to the three
hosts.
C. Use multiView on the database volume to create a PiT; create three views for that PiT and assign it to
the three hosts.
D. Use multiCopy on the database volume with three jobs and assign each destination volume to the
three hosts.
Answer: C,D

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NO.12 Your customer has recently begun using hourly PiTs for rapid application recovery. The desire is to
implement a data retention plan where each hourly PiT is kept on disk until 8:00 PM. Four weeks?worth
the customer would like to keep a daily snapshot copy of the data for seven days. Also the customer
wants to keep four weeks worth of weekly views on a secondary, low cost array. The solution should
minimize disk utilization on the primary array. Which three tasks would you implement to accomplish this
goal? (Choose three.)
A. Create a multiCopy of the application data and keep seven copies.
B. Create a View on the most recent PiT each night at 8:00 PM and retain for seven days.
C. Create a multiCopy of the Sunday View to the second array and keep four copies.
D. Purge PiTs on the source volume at 8:00 PM to keep seven PiTs.
E. Use multiMigrate to move the Sunday View to the second array and keep four copies.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.13 Your customer wants to run backups at any time of the day, using snapshots of production data, leaving
production systems fully online and available during backups. Which SVM application would be used to
achieve their online backup requirement?
A. multiMigrate
B. multiMirror
C. multiView
D. SVM volume management
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which storage arrays can be migrated under SVM 5 control.?
A. SAS storage array
B. iSCSI storage array
C. FC storage array
D. Infiniband storage array
Answer: C

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NO.15 A customer is using SVM to provide five volumes to a Windows 2008 server. These volumes have
been converted to dynamic disks and striped using the OS. Which consideration should be met if the
customer would like to use PiTs and views to access this data from another server?
A. The data cannot be accessed from another host.
B. multiMigrate should be used to migrate the data to a single volume.
C. A consistency group should be defined for the five volumes.
D. The standard agent must be used to access the view.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: GSLC
Exam Name: GIAC (GIAC Security Leadership Certification (GSLC))
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Total Q&A: 567 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2008
Active Directory-based single domain single forest network. The functional level of the forest is Windows
Server 2008. The company's headquarters is located at Los Angeles. A branch office of the company is
located at Denver. You are about to send a message to Rick who is a Network Administrator at Denver.
You want to ensure that the message cannot be read by anyone but the recipient. Which of the following
keys will you use to encrypt the message?
A. Your public key
B. The recipient's private key
C. The recipient's public key
D. Your private key
Answer: C

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NO.2 You work as a Network Administrator for Net World International. The company has a Windows Server
2008 network environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single
domain single forest network. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2008. All client
computers on the network run Windows Vista Ultimate. You configure a public key infrastructure (PKI) on
the network. You configure a root CA and a subordinate CA on the network. For security reasons, you
want to take the root CA offline. You are required to configure the CA servers to support for certificate
revocation.
Choose the steps you will take to accomplish the task.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following are the examples of administrative controls?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Security policy
B. Auditing
C. Security awareness training
D. Data Backup
Answer: A, C

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NO.4 Drag and Drop the layers of TCP/IP model according to their level of data encapsulation.
A.
Answer: A

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have at least two references from similar projects. What have you created in this scenario?
A. Screening system for the vendors
B. Weighting system for the vendors
C. Preferred vendors list
D. Bidders conference
Answer: A

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NO.6 The promiscuous mode is a configuration of a network card that makes the card pass all traffic it
receives to the central processing unit rather than just packets addressed to it. Which of the following
tools works by placing the host system network card into the promiscuous mode?
A. Sniffer
B. THC-Scan
C. NetStumbler
D. Snort
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following programs can collect various types of personal information, such as Internet
surfing habits, and Web sites that the user has visited?
A. Spyware
B. Honeypot
C. Worm
D. Malware
Answer: A

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NO.8 You work as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Windows Active
Directory-based single domain single forest network. The company's network is connected to the Internet
through a T1 line. The firewall is configured on the network for securing the internal network from the
intruders on the Internet. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2003. You are designing a
public key infrastructure (PKI) for the network. The security policy of the company states that all users
should use smart cards for authentication. Select and place the type of certificate authority (CA) that is
required to be configured on the network to implement the security policy of the company.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following applications would be considered a data warehousing application?
A. Golf score tracking
B. Badge reader
C. Fraud detection
D. eCommerce site
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following provides security by implementing authentication and encryption on Wireless
LAN (WLAN)?
A. WEP
B. WAP
C. L2TP
D. IPSec
Answer: A

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NO.11 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.
A_______ is a computer system on the Internet that is expressly set up to attract and trap people who
attempt to penetrate other people's computer systems.
A. honeypot
Answer: A

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NO.12 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2008
network environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single forest single
domain network. The domain functional level is set to Windows Server 2003. You have configured an
Active Directory-integrated DNS zone on the network. A new security policy dictates that each incoming
DNS query should be recorded. Which of the following steps will you take to implement the new security
policy?
A. Create a GPO.
Configure Audit Object Access.
Attach the GPO to the domain.
B. Do nothing, each incoming DNS queries is recorded by default in DNS.LOG file.
C. Enable debug logging on the DNS server.
D. Create a new OU.
Move the DNS server account to the OU.
Create a GPO.
Configure Audit Logon events.
Attach the GPO to the OU.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following protocols is used as a transport protocol for Internet dial-up connections?
A. SMTP
B. SNMP
C. DHCP
D. PPP
Answer: D

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NO.14 Janet is the project manager of the NHQ Project for her company. Janet is nearly done leading the
project and there have been no cost or schedule overruns in the development of the new software for her
company. The project team has been completing their work on time and there is still $75,000 left in the
project budget. Janet decides to have the project team implement some extra features to the project
scope to use all of the $75,000 in the budget even though the customer didn't specifically ask for the
added features. This scenario is an example of which one of the following?
A. Scope creep
B. Gold plating
C. Change management
D. Value added change
Answer: B

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NO.15 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2008
domain-based network. The network has three Windows Server 2008 member servers and 150 Windows
Vista client computers. According to the company's security policy, you want to apply a firewall profile to
the network.Choose the firewall profiles supported by Windows Server 2008 and Windows Vista.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Drop the appropriate value to complete the formula.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following encryption algorithms is applied in the PGP encryption system?
A. TDE
B. Triple DES
C. Blowfish
D. IDEA
Answer: D

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NO.18 Fill in the blank with the appropriate type of router.
A ______ router performs packet-filtering and is used as a firewall.
A. screening
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following are the goals of risk management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Identifying the risk
B. Finding an economic balance between the impact of the risk and the cost of the countermeasure
C. Identifying the accused
D. Assessing the impact of potential threats
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.20 Which of the following tools is based on Linux and used to carry out the Penetration Testing?
A. JPlag
B. BackTrack
C. Vedit
D. Ettercap
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which of the following options is an approach to restricting system access to authorized users?
A. MIC
B. MAC
C. RBAC
D. DAC
Answer: C

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NO.22 Rick, the Network Administrator of the Fimbry Hardware Inc., wants to design the initial test model for
Internet Access. He wants to fulfill the following goals:
No external traffic should be allowed into the network.
Administrators should be able to restrict the websites which can be accessed by the internal
users.
Which of the following technologies should he use to accomplish the above goals? (Click the Exhibit
button on the toolbar to see the case study.)
A. Internet Connection Sharing (ICS)
B. Network Address Translator (NAT)
C. Firewall
D. Proxy Server
E. Routing and Remote Access Service (RRAS)
Answer: D

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NO.23 A wireless network uses multiple modulation schemes to make the signal strong so that it can travel far.
These modulation schemes work with a certain IEEE standard. Choose and drop the correct standards in
the right pane according to the modulation scheme.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.24 John works as a Programmer for We-are-secure Inc. On one of his routine visits to the company, he
noted down the passwords of the employees while they were typing them on their computer screens.
Which of the following social engineering attacks did he just perform?
A. Shoulder surfing
B. Important user posing
C. Dumpster diving
D. Authorization by third party
Answer: A

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NO.25 Mark works as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. The company has a Windows 2000 Active
Directory domain-based network. The domain contains one hundred Windows XP Professional client
computers. Mark is deploying an 802.11 wireless LAN on the network. The wireless LAN will use Wired
Equivalent Privacy (WEP) for all the connections. According to the company's security policy, the client
computers must be able to automatically connect to the wireless LAN. However, the unauthorized
computers must not be allowed to connect to the wireless LAN and view the wireless network. Mark wants
to configure all the wireless access points and client computers to act in accordance with the company's
security policy. What will he do to accomplish this?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Configure the authentication type for the wireless LAN to Open system.
B. Install a firewall software on each wireless access point.
C. Configure the authentication type for the wireless LAN to Shared Key.
D. Disable SSID Broadcast and enable MAC address filtering on all wireless access points.
E. Broadcast SSID to connect to the access point (AP).
F. On each client computer, add the SSID for the wireless LAN as the preferred network.
Answer: C, D. F

NO.26 Which of the following viruses is designed to prevent antivirus researchers from examining its code by
using various methods that make tracing and disassembling difficult?
A. Armored virus
B. Stealth virus
C. Multipartite virus
D. Polymorphic virus
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which of the following is used to describe the type of FTP access in which a user does not have
permissions to list the contents of directories, but can access the contents if he knows the path and file
name?
A. Secure FTP
B. Blind FTP
C. Passive FTP
D. Hidden FTP
Answer: B

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NO.28 You work as a Network Administrator for Net World International. The company has a Windows Server
2008 network environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single
domain single forest network. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2008. All client
computers on the network run Windows Vista Ultimate.
You are configuring a public key interface (PKI) to support domain users and computers. All users will use
smart cards for logon. You have configured a global group named SCIssuer that will issue smart cards for
all domain users. A file server named SecServer is configured on the network. The certificate-based
IPSec encryption is required for all communications to and from the SecServer server. A VPN server is
configured on the network to enable sales managers to connect to the network remotely using their
laptops which run Windows Vista Ultimate. The L2TP connection is required for the VPN server. Place the
users, computers, and groups to the certificate templates that are required for implementing the PKI
infrastructure.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.29 You are responsible for security at a company that uses a lot of Web applications. You are most
concerned about flaws in those applications allowing some attacker to get into your network. What
method would be best for finding such flaws?
A. Automated penetration testing
B. Code review
C. Manual penetration testing
D. Vulnerability scanning
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which system is designed to analyze, detect, and report on security-related events.?
A. HIPS
B. NIPS
C. NIDS
D. HIDS
Answer: B

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Exam Code: AX0-100
Exam Name: Axis (Axis Network Video Exam)
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Total Q&A: 145 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which is a benefit of using VLANs and IP subnets?
A. An encrypted communication link is established over the internet, allowing surveillance video to be
securely viewed off-site
B. The network provides end-to-end encryption to prevent malicious users from intercepting network
traffic
C. The network will only allow access from authorized devices, eliminating the risk that malicious users
disconnect cameras to intercept network traffic
D. Network surveillance video can be kept separate from other network traffic, reducing the risk that
malicious users will intercept it
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement is true regarding H.264 and Motion JPEG?
A. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at high frame rates
B. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only scene complexity
C. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only Group of Video (GOV) setting
D. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at low frame rates
Answer: A

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NO.3 In many places 24 V AC has been popular as a power source but now 12 V and 24 V DC is increasing in
popularity because
A. There is more energy in DC.
B. It is easier to back-up DC with battery.
C. There is less power loss in cables with DC.
D. There is less risk for surge with DC.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which is true regarding the use of a smoked (tinted) dome instead of a clear dome?
A. Decreases color fidelity
B. Decreases field of view
C. Disables infrared capabilities
D. Reduces light sensitivity
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer has a lot of motion blur on recordings from a fixed camera. What would be the most likely
setting to address the blurring?
A. Gain level
B. Brightness
C. Backlight compensation
D. Shutter speed
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which technology can a Video Management Software (VMS) partner incorporate to reduce the impact
on recorded video during server maintenance?
A. Local storage at the camera
B. Meta data stream
C. AXIS Camera Application Platform (ACAP)
D. SNMP
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which setting would best adjust a hard yellow tint as shown in the pictures below?
A. Image contrast
B. White balance
C. Color saturation
D. Image brightness
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following will allow a customer to have a PTZ camera automatically change between
three predefined positions?
A. Configure the camera's I/O ports to control the preset positions
B. Use the Guard Tour capability to switch between the preset positions
C. Switch between the predefined positions using a joystick
D. Use the auto tracking capability to switch between the preset positions
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following statements are true for H.264? (Choose two)
A. The size of an l-frame depends on the preceding P-frame
B. Increased motion in a scene means increased bit rate
C. Group of Video (GOV) length is directly affected by the sizes of the I- and P-frames
D. A P-frame references preceding and succeeding P-frames
E. Longer GOV length means reduced bit rate
Answer: B,E

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NO.10 Axis recommends shielded cables for outdoor installations primarily to ensure
A. Image quality.
B. Surge protection.
C. Life time of cable installations.
D. Conformity with SMPTE standard.
Answer: B

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NO.11 A company is looking for a dome designed to withstand vibrations inherent to transportation. Which of
the following cameras should be recommended?
A. AXIS P3344-VE
B. AXIS M3014
C. AXIS M3114-R
D. AXIS P1344
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the main purpose of the Arctic Temperature Control functionality.?
A. To protect the camera electronics
B. To protect the camera mechanics
C. To protect the camera lens
D. To protect the camera power
Answer: B

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NO.13 In setting up PTZ control for an Axis encoder, it's very easy to overlook a very important step in the
configuration process. After properly connecting the communication wires to the encoder, the next
recommended step in the setup is:
A. Downloading the correct Device ID from the Axis website
B. Setting the Baud Rate to match the analog PTZ' s
C. Setting the Device ID to match the analog ID
D. Uploading the correct PTZ driver
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following are outdoor rated products? (Choose two)
A. AXIS M3114-R
B. AXIS P3304-VR
C. AXIS P1344-E
D. AXIS P3344-VE
E. AXIS M1031-W
Answer: C,D

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NO.15 In a network surveillance installation, the purpose of a router is to
A. Forward the video stream between networks.
B. Forward the video stream to the correct receiver within a network.
C. Separate audio and video traffic to reduce audio latency.
D. Separate the video stream from the camera control signaling.
Answer: A

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NO.16 When initiating a surveillance project with a customer, which of the following should be considered first?
A. Understand which camera models to use
B. Understand the customer's technical knowledge
C. Understand the customer's goals and requirements
D. Understand the legal aspects for the installation
Answer: C

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NO.17 DRAG DROP
Match each function to the correct video surveillance system component. Drag each gray box from the left
column to the matching blue box in the right column.
Answer:

NO.18 Which of the following allows customer to access between 2-4 channels of live and online stored video
at any time?
A. AXIS Camera Station
B. AXIS Video Hosting System (AVHS)
C. AXIS Camera Management
D. AXIS Media Control
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which is an impact on cameras that are operating above their specified temperature limit?
A. Noise is increased
B. Frame rate is reduced
C. Light sensitivity is decreased
D. Resolution is reduced
Answer: A

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NO.20 DRAG DROP
Match the protocol to its default port number. Drag each gray box from the left column to the matching
blue box in the right column.
Answer:

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